Monday, November 8, 2010

Questions that haunt me tonight.

Is it possible to believe that the Word would have become flesh even if man had never sinned, and still maintain the freedom of the Word to do so?

Is it available to man to live out the Sermon on the Mount in such a way as to actually live it out and simultaneously boast solely in Jesus Christ?

Is it available to man to practise the Sermon on the Mount without immediately creating a new law of righteousness and thus marginalizing Christ?

Why is the Sermon on the Mount situated where it is in the Gospel, after the Virgin Birth narrative, baptism and temptation of Jesus, and before the Passion, Descent into Hell, Resurrection of Jesus and His Great Commission?

Is the Sermon on the Mount lived out by a student of Jesus unconsciously or consciously? In other words, is he to expect that he will actually live it out or must he continuously keep its precepts in view as rules which must be attempted?

Does the Sermon on the Mount possess the same texture as the killing letter, or the law that brings death spoken of by Jesus Christ in 2 Corinthians?

If not, how do we explain Mt.5:17?

If no one knows the Son but the Father (so Mt.11:27) in what sense can it be said that Christians have a personal relationship with Jesus?

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